Yet again, someone has played the gay-male-racism card. In a discussion on whether to put same-sex marriage to a popular vote, someone asserted that because gay men are supposedly racist, we have no business addressing anyone else's bigotry.
First, as I've said before, a preference for a certain characteristic in a sexual partner does not automatically equate to racism. Second, even if we assume arguendo that it does, where are the white gay male organizations or leaders who are demanding the right to vote away others' rights? When I asked that, the person raising the issue immediately changed the subject. I guess we can add that question to the ever-growing list of NAQ (never answered questions) on same-sex marriage.
Yes, I am aware of this (and note that I have linked to the actual article, while others have been content to link to blog posts about blog posts about it). Nonetheless, even the study's authors acknowledge major limitations therein, such as the representativeness of the sample. For one thing, what they describe about the San Francisco area does not match what I have seen in the D.C. area. Is there any good reason to believe that as San Francisco goes, so goes the nation, the world, or the jurisdiction that caused the discussion to arise in the first place, namely, D.C.?
Finally, the article does not demonstrate that gay men are more racist than any other group of people. It seems, yet again, that gay men have a unique obligation to be plaster saints.
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